just got done watching the 3-hour wsop mini-marathon tonight. i would presume that episode with raymer getting bounced was last week's episode.
nonetheless, am i interpreting this correctly?
raymer has A9
other guy has 55
flop comes out KK7
raymer is first to act and goes all in.
while the other guy is pondering a call with his 55, raymer says (if i heard the audio correctly)
"i take it you dont have pocket kings"
(or something to that effect, because obviously the guy would have called instantly if he hit the flop with a king)
but my question is this--
why would raymer even make a reference to the guy having/not having a king or kings. shouldnt RAYMER be representing a king there? for christ sake, his tournament life is at stake. whoever the guy was that had the 55 should then have been able to deduce that the flop didnt hit raymer and then it was just a matter of if he (raymer) had a pocket pair better than his 55.
seems like a very amateurish tell from a world champ.
nonetheless, am i interpreting this correctly?
raymer has A9
other guy has 55
flop comes out KK7
raymer is first to act and goes all in.
while the other guy is pondering a call with his 55, raymer says (if i heard the audio correctly)
"i take it you dont have pocket kings"
(or something to that effect, because obviously the guy would have called instantly if he hit the flop with a king)
but my question is this--
why would raymer even make a reference to the guy having/not having a king or kings. shouldnt RAYMER be representing a king there? for christ sake, his tournament life is at stake. whoever the guy was that had the 55 should then have been able to deduce that the flop didnt hit raymer and then it was just a matter of if he (raymer) had a pocket pair better than his 55.
seems like a very amateurish tell from a world champ.

