Why does the function f (x) = x^6 +1 not have any x - intercepts?
B buddy Registered User Forum Member Nov 21, 2000 10,897 85 0 Pittsburgh, Pa. Nov 15, 2010 #1 Why does the function f (x) = x^6 +1 not have any x - intercepts?
K KotysDad Registered User Forum Member Feb 6, 2001 1,206 7 38 Nov 15, 2010 #2 It doesnt have any "real" solutions, but there are 6 imaginary ones. For a real x-int, you have to solve 0 = x^6 + 1 -1 = x^6 For any real x, x^6 is a positive number.
It doesnt have any "real" solutions, but there are 6 imaginary ones. For a real x-int, you have to solve 0 = x^6 + 1 -1 = x^6 For any real x, x^6 is a positive number.
ppabart Not banned Forum Member Dec 13, 2000 18,259 150 63 49 Decatur, GA USA none Nov 15, 2010 #3 right...since x^6 + 1 will always be a positive number, it can't intercept the x-axis
B buddy Registered User Forum Member Nov 21, 2000 10,897 85 0 Pittsburgh, Pa. Nov 15, 2010 #4 Thank you!
the addict BI-WINNING Forum Member Oct 9, 2009 13,034 116 0 39 PA proud Nov 15, 2010 #6 buddy said: Why does the function f (x) = x^6 +1 not have any x - intercepts? Click to expand... is that spanish?:shrug:
buddy said: Why does the function f (x) = x^6 +1 not have any x - intercepts? Click to expand... is that spanish?:shrug:
The Joker Registered Forum Member Aug 3, 2008 28,116 360 83 47 Tennessee www.madjacksports.com Nov 15, 2010 #7
Nole Registered User Forum Member Jan 7, 2002 16,607 214 63 63 Knoxville, Tn USA Nov 15, 2010 #8 buddy said: Why does the function f (x) = x^6 +1 not have any x - intercepts? Click to expand... No Favre? :shrug:
buddy said: Why does the function f (x) = x^6 +1 not have any x - intercepts? Click to expand... No Favre? :shrug: